After reading Act III, Scene I, I believe that the reason for Hamlet’s outbursts against Ophelia were due to his seething hatred for his mother’s actions. Hamlet sees Ophelia as a woman who has yet to be corrupted by men and marriage, and wishes to keep her from being with evil men. When Hamlet says “be thou as chaste as ice, as pure as snow, thou shalt not escape calumny, Get thee to a nunnery”(Shakespeare 66), he is clearly showing he’d rather have Ophelia be celibate than married, a sacred bond Hamlet now views as a tainted by his uncle. Hamlet’s contempt with marriage is understandable, as his mother now shares the bed with Claudius. This has left Hamlet with a feeling of disgust and distrust for womankind, as how could his own mother betray his father in such a grievous manner? While Hamlet may not love Ophelia, he views her as one of few people still not tainted by Claudius’ treachery. And what Ophelia doesn’t seem to understand is that it isn’t her presence that angers Hamlet, but her mentioning of love in general. At this time in Hamlet’s life, love has lost the meaning it once had and only serves as a reminder of what he must accomplish; revenge.